cellio: (menorah)
Monica ([personal profile] cellio) wrote2006-01-19 09:25 am
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parsha bit: Shemot

When God speaks to Moshe from the burning bush, he first says "I am Ehyeh asher ehyeh" and later says to tell the Israelites "Ehyeh sent me". Chazal ask why the change in name. Rabbi Yaakov ben Abina said that when God made the first statement, he said to Moshe "I am with your people in their current troubles and I will be with them in their future troubles", and Moshe objected. It's bad enough that they're slaves now, he said; you can't also tell them that there will be times as bad ahead! God agreed, and thus just "Ehyeh" in the second statement -- I will be with them now. (Midrash Rabbah, Sh'mot 3:1)

Nothing so complicated!

(Anonymous) 2006-01-19 06:04 pm (UTC)(link)
There's no name change!

God's simply saying He's on a first-name basis with the Israelites!

The interpretation I always accepted was that the name might be translated into English "Was, Is, Will Be." Given the science bent my theology takes, I love that explanation of the great "I am."

Grammar fun with the Weekly Parsha

(Anonymous) 2006-01-24 04:45 am (UTC)(link)
The problem that I have with the way that this Midrash was translated is this:

I can not "will be with" you 'now'.

I can only "be" with you 'now'.

If the name changed from "I will be that what I will be" to "I will be", then what is the difference? It still seems to refer to future suffering. Rashi says something very similar to Rav Yaakov ben Abina "אהיה עמם בצרה זו, אשר אהיה עמם בשעבוד שאר מלכיות". "I will be with them in this time of trouble, and am the one who will be with them when subjugated by other kingdoms."

Am I nitpicking here?

- Inkhorn

Re: Grammar fun with the Weekly Parsha

[identity profile] selucid.livejournal.com 2006-01-24 11:50 pm (UTC)(link)
Essentially what you're saying is that it means "I will be with you in the near future until the end of your current troubles, and I will be with you when new problems crop up."

What is this definition of "being" with them anyway? If G-d is omnipresent then isn't G-d always there? One possibility is the concept of G-dly attention. I remember seeing a concept in Torah represented by 'turning up my eyes', which I believe means a form of ignorance. Could it be that G-d's not 'being' with them indicated an ignorance on account of punishment?

Curious!


- Inkhorn (but with an account that doesn't bear my preferred nickname :( )