Ivrit

[cellio]

Tonight was the last night of the ulpan (Hebrew class). I have mixed feelings about it, but there was enough that was positive that I let myself get talked into a weekly follow-on class (five sessions), after hearing who would be teaching it. :-)

I'm going to try an experiment. Occasionally I'll post short passages in Hebrew. I'll never include anything important only in Hebrew, so you're not missing anything if you don't read the language, but if you do read, I welcome corrections, replies in Hebrew, comments, etc. If you reply in Hebrew and you don't use vowels, try not to be too subtle -- I'm not too good with unpointed text yet. And my vocabulary isn't very large yet, but I have a dictionary and 501 Hebrew Verbs. Until I find a reasonable way to typeset, I'm going to take advantage of LJ's vast stores of disk space to store scanned handwriting.

Here's the first one:


(The first word on the last line is a little sloppy; it's ha-hi. That mark below it is a smudge on the paper that I couldn't quite crop out.)

Comments

[magid.livejournal.com]

el/l': Thinking about it more, I think it might have to do (in this case, anyway), with actual motion. You're going to the restaurant physically, which is a different use of 'to' than when you're writing a letter to someone. Maybe.

hayah: Just like in English, if you're going to use a verb, it should be in the right tense. As for one or two, I think two, because you've got two clauses joined by and. If it were "the restaurant was green and tiled", only one hayah, just as English.

sherut: Really, I'm not doubting Dani; it was just a reaction to the word in the contexts I've seen it. I obviously didn't go out to enough restaurants in Israel :-).

[cellio]

El/l': thanks; that seems plausible.

Hayah: you're right; as I've structured it I would need both. One question was whether to use a verb at all. Hebrew seems to do a lot with implied "to be" forms, and biblical, at least, doesn't say that an implied verb is always "is" (present tense). Maybe modern does, though. After all, if you've got an implied "to be" in biblical text it's almost certainly past tense anyway, so that might just be expedience that I shouldn't generalize from.