Entry tags:
The Supremes
Dear SCOTUS,
Let me see if I have this right: A corporation that has a small number of shareholders, like a family, is a "person", and a corporate "person" can reject at least one legally-required expenditures it objects to on religious or moral grounds, and thus Hobby Lobby doesn't have to follow Obamacare's requirement to fund contraception. Got it.
A corporation, while maybe a "person", is clearly no more of a "person" than an actual, real live person, like me. There are legally-required expenditures that apply to me that I object to on religious or moral grounds too. So, dear SCOTUS, could you please clarify which of those I can opt out of? If Obamacare or contraception is somehow unique, please specify how. If you say that I can't opt out, why not? Surely you're not saying that, for example, Hobby Lobby has more rights as a person than I do?
(Quite aside from how you feel about any particular law, while it's a law it should apply equally -- or there should be a clear reason that cases aren't equivalent.)
Let me see if I have this right: A corporation that has a small number of shareholders, like a family, is a "person", and a corporate "person" can reject at least one legally-required expenditures it objects to on religious or moral grounds, and thus Hobby Lobby doesn't have to follow Obamacare's requirement to fund contraception. Got it.
A corporation, while maybe a "person", is clearly no more of a "person" than an actual, real live person, like me. There are legally-required expenditures that apply to me that I object to on religious or moral grounds too. So, dear SCOTUS, could you please clarify which of those I can opt out of? If Obamacare or contraception is somehow unique, please specify how. If you say that I can't opt out, why not? Surely you're not saying that, for example, Hobby Lobby has more rights as a person than I do?
(Quite aside from how you feel about any particular law, while it's a law it should apply equally -- or there should be a clear reason that cases aren't equivalent.)

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It appears that SCOTUS says that courts can determine whether a religious belief is sincerely held, and that seems to me to be the most asinine part of the whole argument.
Nor is there any reason that contraception should be special, except that SCOTUS says that it is.
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I'm still in shock. I don't know why I'm shocked but I am.
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BUT: I think that their reasoning is not exactly the same as it is portrayed in the public press.
SCOTUS has already portrayed that First Amendment Rights can apply to corporations - in my opinion largely on the basis of free speech. It also extends wide authority to individuals to express First Amendment Rights.
I, as a person, can use my possessions to express my rights. To what degree is a corporation my possession? In this case, the court narrowly held that a closely-held corporation of 5 or fewer people can treat a corporation as their property for purposes of their religious expression, especially when the corporation was founded to conform to their religious principles.
The court also found that the US Government had a compelling interest in legislating contraceptive coverage under the ACA - but it only found that the government failed to do so in the most narrow way possible.
Since the US Government offered exceptions for non-profits that are religiously based, the court found that there was insufficient difference between that situation and a closely-held for-profit that was founded upon religious principles that match the owners/founders religious beliefs.
As a result, they ordered that the non-profit religious exception for contraception be narrowly extended - their feeling was that the governments goal could be adequately expressed that way.
I'm not saying how I feel about that decision, frankly, because I haven't read the full 100 pages or so completely and deeply. That's just the summary of the majority opinion as I've seen both in direct quotation and in summary by professional attorneys. And, as a practical matter, neither the Executive nor Legislative branches have worked out funding for this new extension of the non-profit exception, so there may be a practical impact.
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Notable in this case is that the US did not question whether the belief was sincerely held, so the question was never challenged. If it had been, I suspect it would have been upheld.
There must be SOME evidence that this is a sincerely held belief: I suspect that the founding papers of Hobby Lobby probably contained something that could have been used as evidence.
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Then, in Employment Division v. Smith, the Court (in a decision written by Justice Scalia, of all people) decided that applying this level of scrutiny to free-exercise-of-religion cases was not proper, and backed away from that whole line of cases.
Then Congress said “actually, we like the standard that used to apply”, and passed the Religious Freedom Restoration Act (RFRA), which ordered the courts to interpret Federal law according to the old standard.
Then came Obamacare, and Hobby Lobby. The Hobby Lobby decision hinges on an interpretation of the RFRA, not an interpretation of the Constitution. (A boneheaded interpretation, IMHO, but at least Congress can amend the RFRA.)
Anyway, all that context is necessary for me to answer your question: even under the old constitutional standard, the courts have held that you can’t refuse to pay taxes due to religious objection. Adams v. Commissioner of Internal Revenue, a Third Circuit case, has a bunch of citations.
See also Tony and Susan Alamo v. Secretary of Labor: if a church raises money through commercial activity, the workers employed in that activity are covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act, even if they consider themselves to be volunteers and consider their work to be a kind of spiritual service.
PS: The Citizens United case makes it clear that as far as the current Court is concerned, a corporation is a person with constitutional rights (or, to be more precise: it exercises constitutional rights on behalf of its owners) regardless of how many shareholders it has. I strongly suspect that if a non-closely-held corporation underwent a religious conversion, so to speak, the Court would grant it the same deference.
PPS: IANAL.
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I suppose we can be thankful for small favors.
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1. this was not a first amendment case. It was decided in RFRA.
2. Yes, you can be expect from some laws. Like smoking peyote. Or not paying social security taxes if Amish, and have only Amish employees that choose to not have you pay it. And it's because of RFRA.
RFRA exists because of the peyote SCOTUS case.
So, as much as I would prefer the reading offend law according to the dissent... Most of the comments are unfortunatly in accurate :(
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Huh?
This doesn't make any sense. I don't mean it's a pointless opinion, I mean I don't even know what your opinion is. This sentence (well, OK, it's a clause) doesn't make sense. Please clarify, or fix your typos, or whatever. TIA.
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-- which is the subject of lawsuits arguing that the exception violates the non-profits' religious liberties. If the Court decides in favor of those non-profits, I am quite unclear on how that would not knock the props out from under the current decision.
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(The belief that contraception is a sin, that's certainly a thing too, and the Court also issued several decisions relating to Catholic business owners objecting to contraception in general. But the Hobby Lobby owners were specifically objecting to certain methods, while okaying others, so they're not in a position to lean on that belief.
And not saying this is legally material in itself but I find it fairly remarkable: the "mini-Pill" is okay, "Plan B" is not; both are levonorgestrel, though the doses and product labeling differ. My recollection, actually, is that the sources that suggested that either would prevent implantation would suggest it of both of them. If one is to sail past factual questions in a religious belief, is it now a religious belief that Plan B can prevent implantation and hormonal contraception can't?)
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They also would rather not judge the legitimacy of religious practices themselves, but in practice that's what they do, to avoid turning the RFRA into a complete anything-goes card. De facto it matters whether your religion and its sacramental practice is sufficiently accepted (e.g. practiced by five or more members of the bench), and this is why Rastafarians don't get to smoke ganja. (Although, Santo Daime members do get to use DMT, so it's not that it's "mainstream only".) This all somewhat tangential, perhaps, but frankly I think it does have some bearing on how they'd treat Catholicism versus Christian Science, for one hypothetical people have raised.
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"This decision concerns only the contraceptive mandate and
should not be understood to hold that all insurance-coverage mandates, e.g.,
for vaccinations or blood transfusions, must necessarily fall if they conflict with an employer’s religious beliefs. Nor does it provide a shield for employers who might cloak illegal discrimination as a religious practice."
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I suspect that the final decisions will be that honest certification for what you are and are not doing is not a substantial burden because the level of complicity in the result is too far-fetched.
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I can't debate their beliefs for them, and do not wish to. Smart, stupid, vapid: who knows?
Re: Huh?
Should have read:
So, as much as I would prefer the reading of the law according to the dissent..
Re: Huh?
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But the really big question for me is, doesn't this pierce the corporate veil? Owners of corporate stock cannot be held criminally responsible for actions of the corporation because of that veil, right? If a corporation can channel its owner's religion, doesn't it also channel their moral responsibility?
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I have opinions about this case and that one but I'm trying to keep me out of it.
I
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The Federal government doesn't have other exceptions in this law.